3 ms·
That seems like it would be discriminatory, because the message contains no sex or gender-specific language, and sending the same message to the women would tak
by nickff 10y ago
That seems like it would be discriminatory, because the message contains no sex or gender-specific language, and sending the same message to the women would take no more time (per employee) than the men. Modifying the message to contain gender-specific language would mean that the manager would have to have two templates, but intentionally creating a gender-specific template for the purpose of excluding one group would itself be discriminatory.