Only if you assume the data have been fiddled do you have to worry about correlation not being causation; otherwise the law of large numbers applies thoroughly

Only if you assume the data have been fiddled do you have to worry about correlation not being causation; otherwise the law of large numbers applies thoroughly - if not coincidence, that leaves causation in this case. Why? Because present inequality can't be causing previous peace; and as for both being a downstream cause of something else ... well that just beggars my imagination - Descarte's Evil Genius or Aliens with a sense of humor are the only such upstream causes I can imagine. But if you can do better, I'm open. Most eras of history consist of anecdotal evidence; ya gotta examine and play the cards you have, not those you'd prefer. You infer that you've done a lot of reading plump with evidence contradicting this without ever offering bibliography or counterexamples; but my reading, which I mentioned, supports the thesis (for example, in the East as well) (and as it happens, supports Marx in this matter.) Please raise, call, or fold.