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>but this comment has a definite bias. The fact that a majority of poor people are not criminals does not exclude the possibility that that criminals are more
by someguydave 10y ago
>but this comment has a definite bias.
The fact that a majority of poor people are not criminals does not exclude the possibility that that criminals are more prevalent among the poor than any other wealth group.
- sdrothrock 10y agoThe initial discussion was about "poor people," not "criminals" or even "criminals among the poor." To enter that discussion with a focus on the symptoms of the minority to apply them to the state of the majority is disingenuous.