> Why is the word of the judge alone sufficient to assume otherwise? There seems to be an obvious lack of checks here. Because the judge's finding is based on

> Why is the word of the judge alone sufficient to assume otherwise? There seems to be an obvious lack of checks here. Because the judge's finding is based on evidence – see my other comment[1]. The judicial power to make findings of fact is checked by the appeal process, which is now underway. [1] https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=13633968 https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=13633968