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I don't know if it's properly historically true but I've seen several explanations claim it's intended as a statement of support for the Revolutionary war, some
by Glyptodon 10y ago
I don't know if it's properly historically true but I've seen several explanations claim it's intended as a statement of support for the Revolutionary war, something along the lines of the "just" outcome making the means ("war/rebellion") acceptable. IE I guess it's supposed to imply that "fit/just" ends make their means more so than just any end.
- jessaustin 10y agoI'm no scholar of Ovid, but even in your interpretation, the actions under consideration aren't seen as particularly defensible in and of themselves. Rather, they're acceptable when viewed from a certain perspective. Probably most actions are like that, but the pride evinced in this dictum should be reserved for actions that are self-evidently ethical, rather than relatively so.
- rrggrr 10y agoThat interpretation is a classical definition of virtue and I would argue very consistent from Washington throughout history to Plato.