3 ms·

Microsoft was in similar boat a while ago. They refused[1] to handover foreign data, and court ruled in their favor[2]. Why does Google has to be treated differ

Microsoft was in similar boat a while ago. They refused[1] to handover foreign data, and court ruled in their favor[2]. Why does Google has to be treated differently? This type of decisions pose serious threat to competitiveness of US companies in a global market. [1] http://www.zdnet.com/article/microsoft-refuses-to-hand-over-foreign-data-held-in-contempt-of-court/ http://www.zdnet.com/article/microsoft-refuses-to-hand-over-... [2] http://www.zdnet.com/article/microsoft-scores-privacy-win-after-appeals-court-decision/ http://www.zdnet.com/article/microsoft-scores-privacy-win-af...

DrScump 10y ago
I suspect that it's because the data was produced outside the USA in the Microsoft case but inside the USA in the Google case.
- DannyBee 10y ago
  No, actually, it's not. the court specifically rejected the 2nd circuit's reasoning on Microsoft, because they think it was wrong.
  - DrScump 10y ago
    "The court" in this case being just one magistrate, Magistrate Judge Thomas.
mynameisvlad 10y ago
The real answer to your question is: Because the court system. Specifically, because the magistrate that heard Google's case disagreed with the other judge's ruling. It's specifically mentioned in the first paragraph of the article, linking to the article as well as another one stating that a rehearing on the Microsoft case was denied. Judges seem to be very split on the issue, so it's a matter of who you get.
- fennecfoxen 10y ago
  > Judges seem to be very split on the issue, so it's a matter of who you get. This is generally when the Supreme Court starts to consider getting involved: it is the venue to resolve discrepancies between lower courts.