3 ms·
Does it require the subjective probability to be complex-valued? (as in eg https://arxiv.org/pdf/hep-th/9307019.pdf https://arxiv.org/pdf/hep-th/9307019.pdf, ht
by ajb 10y ago
Does it require the subjective probability to be complex-valued? (as in eg https://arxiv.org/pdf/hep-th/9307019.pdf https://arxiv.org/pdf/hep-th/9307019.pdf, http://physics.bu.edu/~youssef/quantum/quantum_refs.html http://physics.bu.edu/~youssef/quantum/quantum_refs.html)
- n4r9 10y agoI wouldn't say it's required, no. There are many reformulations of quantum probabilities. The approach often taken in QBism is to model the state of a quantum system using a restricted subset of the full probability simplex. For example, a spin-1/2 particle has three degrees of freedom (x, y, z), each of which can be measured to be up or down. The state of the particle is uniquely defined by the probability it associates to each measurement outcome. These are ordinary probabilities between 0 and 1. However certain probability distributions are disallowed, such as deterministically measuring up in all three directions.
- deleted 10y ago[deleted]