4 ms·
The US has had clear definitions of race in the past - e.g. "1/16 or more". If we adopt such a definition, will you drop your objections to legalized racism? If
by yummyfajitas 10y ago
The US has had clear definitions of race in the past - e.g. "1/16 or more". If we adopt such a definition, will you drop your objections to legalized racism? If not, why not?
It's ok, we've discussed this before. I don't expect anything other than evasion of the core philosophical issue.
- crdoconnor 10y agoThe point I made very clearly before is the same as the one I made now. If you are a US citizen, subject to US laws enforced by the very real institution of the US government which you live under, the US government owes you a living. If you are, say, a Mongolian citizen, the US government doesn't owe you a living. Your opinion was apparently that the US owes Mongolian citizens the same thing it owes US citizens, because... reasons. If you are of any particular race that is an irrelevance. An irrelevance you keep bringing up because you are obsessed with race to a point that is frankly disturbing.