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A small grammar question, it says: "But fewer than 15 percent of the applicants were able to pass a reading, writing and math screening test [...]" Shouldn't

A small grammar question, it says: "But fewer than 15 percent of the applicants were able to pass a reading, writing and math screening test [...]" Shouldn't it be less than? Isn't it refering to "less than 15% [...]" instead of "fewer [...] aplicants"? AFAIK for people/countable things is fewer than, but wouldn't this refer directly to the percentage? Note: English is not my native language but that's not an excuse not to improve.

Vinnl 10y ago
I think that in this case both are possible, since the sentence can be interpreted to refer to either the percentage or the applications, as you point out. Take it with a grain of salt as I'm not a native speaker either, but non-native speakers are also often more conscious about grammar ;)
mhb 10y ago
Right. of the applicants is a prepositional phrase modifying 15 percent. So fewer/less refers to the percentage.
bandrami 10y ago
1. Less/fewer is a distinction rapidly being lost by native English speakers, so don't feel bad if it's confusing. (It's also a relatively recent rule; Shakespeare didn't follow it, for instance.) 2. If I were copy-editing this, I probably would have substituted in "less" for "fewer", but mostly because as a copy-editor you feel like you have to contribute something 3. The senses are ultimately identical ("fewer applicants than 15% of them" vs. "less of a percentage of applicants than 15"), so I'd say ultimately either is OK.
randcraw 10y ago
I am a native speaker and I agree with 'fewer' but I also agree it's a rather fine point. Because the commodity being described is discrete and not continuous (applicants), the terms describing them should also be discrete. Obviously, as real numbers, percentages are not inherently discrete. But when a percentage quantifies a discrete unit, the final quantity it describes is still discrete. Thus the unit still determines which word to use (fewer/less), and not the addition of further modifiers like 'percentage'.

Vinnl 10y ago

I think that in this case both are possible, since the sentence can be interpreted to refer to either the percentage or the applications, as you point out. Take it with a grain of salt as I'm not a native speaker either, but non-native speakers are also often more conscious about grammar ;)

mhb 10y ago

Right. of the applicants is a prepositional phrase modifying 15 percent. So fewer/less refers to the percentage.

bandrami 10y ago

1. Less/fewer is a distinction rapidly being lost by native English speakers, so don't feel bad if it's confusing. (It's also a relatively recent rule; Shakespeare didn't follow it, for instance.) 2. If I were copy-editing this, I probably would have substituted in "less" for "fewer", but mostly because as a copy-editor you feel like you have to contribute something 3. The senses are ultimately identical ("fewer applicants than 15% of them" vs. "less of a percentage of applicants than 15"), so I'd say ultimately either is OK.

randcraw 10y ago

I am a native speaker and I agree with 'fewer' but I also agree it's a rather fine point. Because the commodity being described is discrete and not continuous (applicants), the terms describing them should also be discrete. Obviously, as real numbers, percentages are not inherently discrete. But when a percentage quantifies a discrete unit, the final quantity it describes is still discrete. Thus the unit still determines which word to use (fewer/less), and not the addition of further modifiers like 'percentage'.