Right, power laws are extremely common, and all it says is that some aspect of the distribution is scale-invariant, but without saying why. For example, most co

Right, power laws are extremely common, and all it says is that some aspect of the distribution is scale-invariant, but without saying why. For example, most companies are scalable, so it's no surprise that company valuations follow a power law. And since investors/founders own such large shares of companies, that would help explain why the 1% follows a power law. But as this article claims, if people gamble on log-scales, that would also create a power law. Power laws are so common and general, I find it difficult to believe that a power law is evidence of one way or the other.