Don't have a good answer but I believe drug abuse is on the rise so if drug abuse is rising (and not due to increased desire to self-harm) then this statistic

Don't have a good answer but I believe drug abuse is on the rise so if drug abuse is rising (and not due to increased desire to self-harm) then this statistic would increase as well, and the phenomena would be conflated. Given there's so much ink being spilled about the drug abuse increase in America, OPs statement makes sense to me and unless they are separated (again we are talking about under 200 data points) I think it's tough to say self-harm is explicitly on the rise.