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Not at all: if other people reference old philosophy, you may need to understand old philosophy in order to understand them, regardless of whether or not they s
by hyperpape 10y ago
Not at all: if other people reference old philosophy, you may need to understand old philosophy in order to understand them, regardless of whether or not they should be referencing old philosophy.
Compare: if there is a guy speaking French to you in the US, you need to understand French to understand him, even if it would be a whole lot more effective for him to speak English.
- gumby 10y agoSure, what you say is true but that's not the question she raises. Yours is simply a functional question. A very useful question, but not an insightful one. To reframe her question with your example, she's asking: "Everyone says I should learn to write French to talk to French people. But the French froze their spelling in the 17th century, while languages like English and German have modernized their spelling. Why should the French be different?" That is an interesting question. Hers is also: why is philosophy treated differently from, say, Physics in this regard?