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Unless the parent has edited their comment, I don't see any 'outrage' or need to 'calm down'...
by JshWright 10y ago
Unless the parent has edited their comment, I don't see any 'outrage' or need to 'calm down'...
- CydeWeys 10y agoAccusing someone of being misleading is unwarranted ad hominem. A better way for him to approach his comment would have been to simply say there were two such incidents, no comments on motives necessary.
- JshWright 10y agoIt's true that the statement is likely to mislead. If I hear "multiple" I certainly think "more than two". No one said it was intentionally misleading... The fact that it's misleading is simply a fact. It's only an ad hominem if they ascribe malicious intent, which they did not.
- CydeWeys 10y agoMultiple means more than one: https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/multiple https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/multiple (see the first definition). It's not misleading when you describe an indefinite quantity as "multiple" when all you know about it is more than one. Also, what phrasing would you have preferred? "More than one" is the most accurate and least subject to misinterpretation, but then of course you'd still say it's misleading if the answer turns out to be two. If I knew the exact number I would've just said it. The point of using indefinite quantifiers is to convey uncertainty, it is not to mislead.