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I greatly would have preferred to see Western Europe instead of the countries in your second paragraph, because while tastes and convenience differ, income is c
by logicallee 10y ago
I greatly would have preferred to see Western Europe instead of the countries in your second paragraph, because while tastes and convenience differ, income is comparable in European capitals especially, and people can eat at McDonald's if they want, with the same impact on their budget. Whereas some of your other countries differ substantially in all metrics from N. America (specifically the U.S. In particular the U.S. has per capital income that is a multiple of each of those countries [1] - in terms of purchasing power, Thailand, South Africa, Malawi, Cameroon, Botswana, Brazil are at $16,130 - $13,209 - $1,126 - $3,148 - $16,415 - $15,646 respectively (the hyphens are just my separators) to the U.S. at $56,084. The food choices and culture would also very radically differ. While Western Europe and North America have differing food cultures, habits, and especially convenience and availability, at least the purchasing power is comparable, the worst offenders (e.g. cola with sugar, cheap fast food) are equally available and many cultural aspects (general industrialization and urbanization, amount people work physically) are at least roughly similar. The countries you listed are just very different across all of these points, as far as I know. Even an American who goes to Thailand isn't going to eat the same as in America - whereas while going travelling in Europe, they well might eat very comparably.
So while you support the argument I was making, I actually would prefer to see data about incidence in Western Europe - not the countires you listed.
[1]https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_GDP_(PPP)_per_capita https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_GDP_(PPP)... - (I'm using the first column, International Monetary Fund (2015))