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The problem is that achievement tests and grades are a measure of IQ. Imagine I have a direct relationship, y = g. Now I measure compute a noisy data set, (x,y
by yummyfajitas 10y ago
The problem is that achievement tests and grades are a measure of IQ.
Imagine I have a direct relationship, y = g. Now I measure compute a noisy data set, (x,y) with x = g + noise. Depending on the size of the noise I'll discover that y is correlated with g with some R^2. My regression coefficient will come out to be approximately y = 1x.
Now imagine I made a new noisy data set, (x1, x2, x3, y). Here x1 = g + noise, x2 = g + noise, x3 = g + noise. Here x1 might be IQ, x2 might be SAT or other such g-loaded test, x3 grades, etc. My new regression coefficients are y = (1/3)x1 + (1/3)x2 + (1/3)x3. Suddenly x1 has lost 2/3 of it's predictive power!
The problem is that my measurements are correlated, that's all. And as you note, table 2 shows a pretty solid correlation between IQ, personality, achievement and grades.
If you actually want to draw the conclusion that the article is trying to draw, you need to decouple IQ from the other measurements.
- Godel_unicode 10y agoIn order for them to be directly related as you suggest, all high-iq participants need to memorize lots of facts and learn lots of skills and no low-iq participants can do similarly. It seems that, by citing them as separate factors, the authors are saying this is not true for the population they considered.
- yummyfajitas 10y agoTable 2 shows it is true.
- mcguire 10y agoTable 2 shows the pairwise correlations. The highest is between iq and achievement: 0.4-0.7 on different datasets. The correlation between iq and grades is between 0.1 and 0.5. That's strong, but not 1.
- yummyfajitas 10y agoMy critique doesn't require a correlation of 1, I just used that as a simple example where I could work out the math in my head.