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I think a Poison distribution would be more appropriate here, so the probability of 1 man in 5 being colorblind, assuming 10% of the population on average is co
by jballanc 10y ago
I think a Poison distribution would be more appropriate here, so the probability of 1 man in 5 being colorblind, assuming 10% of the population on average is colorblind, is:
e^-0.5*sum((i)->(0.5^i/factorial(i)), 1:5) = ~39%
- softawre 10y ago> Poison distribution Why? This is basic statistics (% of population).
- caf 10y agoI don't believe so - it's n instances of a bi-valued random variable, IID. It's exactly the case the binomial distribution covers.
- mnw21cam 10y agoExactly. You have five chances at an event, and an event probability per chance, which is exactly what the binomial distribution is for. The Poisson distribution is what you use when the effective number of chances is "large". The Poisson distribution is effectively a special case of the binomial distribution, where the number of chances is infinity, the probability per chance is infinitesimal, and the product of the two is the expected number of events.