3 ms·
The use of Keplerian simply refers to the inverse square law, and if you think the inverse square law isn't involved then maybe I should take that bridge off yo
by Tloewald 10y ago
The use of Keplerian simply refers to the inverse square law, and if you think the inverse square law isn't involved then maybe I should take that bridge off your hands. You seriously think these guys don't know high school physics?
- phkahler 10y agoThe inverse square law applies to 2-body systems ONLY. I do in fact think they know high school physics and are trying to misapply it. The use of that simple physics can sometimes be used in other systems as a special case of the divergence theorem (third year calculus) IF certain conditions are satisfied. I'm just saying they keep applying by missing a key point in the justification for doing so. Perhaps they're not actually using Kepler, but they sure do keep bringing up his name - and I am correct that it's not OK to use that. As I sometime say - the only dark matter is between the astrophysicists ears. This assumes they're actually using Kepler as a reference for "expected" behavior - some of those guys are smart beyond my comprehension.