4 ms·
The whole sine and product business just encodes and obfuscates the claim that "there exists a prime p, such that (1+2product_of_primes) is divisible by p". And
by bonoboTP 10y ago
The whole sine and product business just encodes and obfuscates the claim that "there exists a prime p, such that (1+2product_of_primes) is divisible by p". And the two sides of the equation just show how both the claim and its negation can be derived if one assumes a finite set of primes. It's true since any natural number > 1 (including 1+2*product_of_primes) has a prime divisor, and it's false because for any prime p, 2product_of_primes is divisible by p but 1 is not, so the sum cannot be divisible by p.
It's actually the classic proof at its core, just with some obfuscation.
- paulddraper 10y agoCorrect. The non-zeroness of the product is a logical AND of the non-zeroness of the terms. And the sin establishes that the argument/pi is non-integer. Still, I think it's quite clever, even if fundamentally "not new".