3 ms·
It's not the factorial either, that would include composites in the product too.
by adrianratnapala 10y ago
It's not the factorial either, that would include composites in the product too.
- schoen 10y agoEuclid didn't use the factorial in his original proof, but it still produces a logically correct argument and it has fewer syllables. Metri causa. :-)
- JadeNB 10y agoUsing the factorial is better, I think, even if ahistorical; it avoids the slight unpleasantness of having to show that every non-unit integer is divisible by a prime.