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>as more then half of all people eventually do This is inaccurate. >The divorce rate peaked in the 1970s and early 1980s and has been declining for the three
by nommm-nommm 10y ago
>as more then half of all people eventually do
This is inaccurate.
>The divorce rate peaked in the 1970s and early 1980s and has been declining for the three decades since.... If current trends continue, nearly two-thirds of marriages will never involve a divorce.
>Ultimately, a long view is likely to show that the rapid rise in divorce during the 1970s and early 1980s was an anomaly. It occurred at the same time as a new feminist movement, which caused social and economic upheaval. Today, society has adapted, and the divorce rate has declined again.
http://www.nytimes.com/2014/12/02/upshot/the-divorce-surge-is-over-but-the-myth-lives-on.html?_r=0http://www.nytimes.com/2014/12/02/upshot/the-divorce-surge-is-over-but-the-myth-lives-on.html?_r=0 http://www.nytimes.com/2014/12/02/upshot/the-divorce-surge-i...
- pessimizer 10y agoAs more than one-third of all people eventually do, then. Not much of a difference?
- nommm-nommm 10y agoUmmmm... Yes, there's a huge difference between 50% and 33%. That's just for the general population though, as the article said the drop is largely concentrated in certain groups of people. If you are the average hacker news reader (a high earning heterosexual man) and you marry a college educated woman whose when both of you are in your late 20/early 30s you are very unlikely to divorce. The 50% figure is really flawed to start with through, it came from taking the annual marriage rate per 1,000 people and comparing it with the annual divorce rate. Understand in in a given year the people who are getting married are not the same people getting divorced.