I may be misunderstanding, but it looks like you're giving them both the post-split number of shares and pre-split price, which would double the value of the in

I may be misunderstanding, but it looks like you're giving them both the post-split number of shares and pre-split price, which would double the value of the investment? Great number sleuthing, though, thanks! Oh, on reread - perhaps the stock split in 2003 would have been the second time?