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Spain from the 15th century onwards is a counter-example to your theory. Because they had accumulated so much wealth from plundering the New World, they became
by cnlevy 10y ago
Spain from the 15th century onwards is a counter-example to your theory.
Because they had accumulated so much wealth from plundering the New World, they became lazy and dependent for goods on poorer, and more industious nations, (the English for example). On the other hand, the English, which didn't have all that wealth were forced to produce real-value;
Around the 17th century, they overcame Spain to become a dominant power in Europe; The role of colonialism was secondary in the wealth production of modern European nations.
- maceo 10y ago"the English, which didn't have all that wealth" What? The British mastered the slave trade and its Caribbean slave colonies were perhaps the most productive of the era.
- pipio21 10y agoMore industrious nations? In what, in pillage, piracy? slave trade? Spain not only exploited South America, but also administered it and gave it a lot of wealth and education to those places. In fact, some places in South America went sour after independence because it was much better administered before. In places like Argentina, genocide to the native population happened after independence, not before. Once and again people project England situation today to the past, but you have to look at the England of the past, that was certainly not more industrious. Industry in England is copied and improved from the Netherlands from a political plan like the Meiji period in Japan. Before that it was a very poor country and certainly not harder working than the rest.