I'm sorry, but from what I read in the Wikipedia article you linked to, "Simply because something is natural does not make it good" doesn't really match Moore's

I'm sorry, but from what I read in the Wikipedia article you linked to, "Simply because something is natural does not make it good" doesn't really match Moore's definition. I've always seen the fallacy in question used as it is in the article, e.g. that one can't claim that something is good (in the ethical sense) because it is pleasurable. Is there something I'm missing?