4 ms·
The question was rhetorical to try to demonstrate that it might result in surprising behavior if const just manipulated its values to make them become immutable
by AgentME 10y ago
The question was rhetorical to try to demonstrate that it might result in surprising behavior if const just manipulated its values to make them become immutable. If adding the `const y = x;` line made the object referenced in `x` be immutable, then the 3rd line would fail, which I don't is a consequence desired even by people who thought const made things immutable.
I guess one alternative idea for how const would work could be an implementation where `x.a = 5` worked but `y.a = 5` failed. But then what happens if you pass `y` into a function which then tries to assign the `a` property on it? Is the const-ness part of the value passed into the function, or is it a property on variable bindings, and you could only pass `y` to functions that accepted a const variable? That kind of function type checking isn't something usual to javascript currently. And then is the const-ness deep? Is `y.foo.a = 5;` blocked? Mutable DOM elements are a big part of javascript. If the object happened to contain a reference to an element that needed to be manipulated, then you won't be able to do something like `y.foo.element.textContent = "new foo content";`. Going down this road it's now getting to be a pretty big feature that doesn't cleanly fit with the rest of the language or common tasks.
Maybe the naming is a little unfortunate: Javascript's `const` has more in common with Java's `final` than C's `const`.