3 ms·
40 Gbps would actually be exactly 5 Gigabytes per second (divided by 8).
by m-app 10y ago
40 Gbps would actually be exactly 5 Gigabytes per second (divided by 8).
- bsder 10y agoWhile I don't know the exact overhead of 10GigE, there is likely still some overhead. At the lower speeds, things like 8b/10b encoding and Reed-Solomon ECC added enough overhead that dividing by 10 was more accurate than dividing by 8.
- signa11 10y ago> While I don't know the exact overhead of 10GigE, there is likely still some overhead. on 10gige pipes, at max Ethernet mtu (1500) bytes etc, there is approx. 94% of available bandwidth for user data (accounting for things like inter-frame-gap, crc checksums etc). with jumbo-frames that number goes to 99%.
- bsder 10y agoOkay, so call it 10% overhead (actually 8%) if we're taking a WAG (wild *ss guess). That would mean that I would need to divide by about roughly nine (8.8 or so). Sorry, I can't do divide-by-nine quickly in my head. I can do divide by 10 though, and my error is roughly 10%.