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Suppose the program you gave as example doesn't have a stack. Does the TCP/IP code of the underlying operative system that would run it have one? If so, then yo
by sebastianconcpt 10y ago
Suppose the program you gave as example doesn't have a stack. Does the TCP/IP code of the underlying operative system that would run it have one? If so, then your unexploitable program can be exploited without it even noticing, correct?
- drdeca 10y agoI was imagining the code (translated to some machine code version) being running on hardware. Of course, that isn't actually necessary for the argument. It doesn't matter whether the program is running on hardware directly or through some OS, so long as the thing running it is not broken. When one talks about a Turing machine running a program, one generally does not model the machine as occasionally not working as specified. Similarly here, the assumption is that the implementing thing, whether it be an OS or a circuit, works according to the spec that the program for it is based around.
- sebastianconcpt 10y agoI see your point. Well even IBM Simon was running Datalight ROM-DOS. I can't imagine a device as complex as a smartphone, even with a fraction of its features running all directly on the metal, can you? https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Datalight#ROM-DOS https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Datalight#ROM-DOS