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It really depends how you define the market. If we look countrywide [0] France has ~20% iOS, here in the UK we have ~40%. But the product my company is selli

It really depends how you define the market. If we look countrywide [0] France has ~20% iOS, here in the UK we have ~40%. But the product my company is selling (in the UK) is currently faced with a OS distribution of ~80% iOS and ~20% Android (some small number of web only clients). Why? We hypothesise that our customers have greater cashflow than the average Brit and as such the iPhone is much more popular choice. It is also worth noting that this dominance has caused us to drop at least one feature from our product because the iOS devices seemingly have no way of reliably running a process in the background. [0] http://uk.businessinsider.com/apple-ios-v-android-market-share-2016-1 http://uk.businessinsider.com/apple-ios-v-android-market-sha...

stephenr 10y ago
By your logic I could release an iOS only app and then claim iOS has a 100% monopoly because no one uses my app on android. As for the background processes: that's by design. Only specific types of apps that have legitimate broad-appeal use cases for background processes (eg voip apps) are allowed. There is a reason Apple products have high customer satisfaction survey results: a product is not just whatever shit you can throw together.
- Normal_gaussian 10y ago
  No you have completely misunderstood 'my logic'. I was illustrating how product share depends on the market definition. I did not give a definition for a monopoly. This illustration could showed both that the parent comments' statistic is irrelevant/incorrect and that the market share is likely to vary significantly across a geographical population. As for the background processes. I know that is by design. Believe it or not we are allowed by Apple to run our background process in a similar vein to most other Apps. Unfortunately the background process mechanism is not reliable enough for us. Hence why I said 'reliable'. Apple have no intention of improving this situation as we are not a large enough revenue stream.

stephenr 10y ago

By your logic I could release an iOS only app and then claim iOS has a 100% monopoly because no one uses my app on android. As for the background processes: that's by design. Only specific types of apps that have legitimate broad-appeal use cases for background processes (eg voip apps) are allowed. There is a reason Apple products have high customer satisfaction survey results: a product is not just whatever shit you can throw together.

Normal_gaussian 10y ago
No you have completely misunderstood 'my logic'. I was illustrating how product share depends on the market definition. I did not give a definition for a monopoly. This illustration could showed both that the parent comments' statistic is irrelevant/incorrect and that the market share is likely to vary significantly across a geographical population. As for the background processes. I know that is by design. Believe it or not we are allowed by Apple to run our background process in a similar vein to most other Apps. Unfortunately the background process mechanism is not reliable enough for us. Hence why I said 'reliable'. Apple have no intention of improving this situation as we are not a large enough revenue stream.