Is the article wrong on the requirement of a judge's order for collecting information? As far as I understand they will gather the info nonetheless and have a p

Is the article wrong on the requirement of a judge's order for collecting information? As far as I understand they will gather the info nonetheless and have a pro forma judge order to "access" it, correct? So what's the difference to the US - other than vastly inferior technical capabilities and the court in question not being secret?