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Because the population density was much lower in pre-Columbian America than in pre-Columbian Mexico[0]. Note how Argentina has a similarly low population densit
by w1ntermute 10y ago
Because the population density was much lower in pre-Columbian America than in pre-Columbian Mexico[0]. Note how Argentina has a similarly low population density - their current population also has a low level of indigenous ancestry.
There are some other nuances as well, like how the existing social structure was preserved in Mexico. Check out Why Nations Fail[1] for the details.
0: http://i.imgur.com/RI3uplJ.jpg http://i.imgur.com/RI3uplJ.jpg
1: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Why_Nations_Fail https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Why_Nations_Fail
- tuna-piano 10y agoYes, the population map is exactly what I was looking for - makes total sense and explains the differences. Thanks
- mrtree 10y ago"Population density"is a nice way to put it but hides fact that the local population was exterminated in the british colonies, and not in the spanish ones. That's why there is so few people of aboriginal descent in the US and not in Latin America.
- w1ntermute 10y agoPopulation density isn't "a nice way to put it", it's data from before colonization began. Regardless of what happened afterwards, the starting conditions were very different in what is now the US and Mexico.