3 ms·

It's in the EU documents.

• deleted 10y ago
  [deleted]
• nickff 10y ago
  My understanding is that EU documents estimate that number for the Irish tax take as percentage of total global revenue, it isn't their total effective tax rate (on profits as is common for corporations). The parent used a meaningless number in a misleading fashion.
  • fauigerzigerk 10y ago
    I think it was completely obvious in the context that I wasn't talking about Apple's global effective tax rate but only about the taxes they pay in Ireland where all of their European sales are booked. My understanding is that the numbers I quoted (in good faith) are derived from the profits Apple would have made in Europe had they not been allowed by the Irish government to use unrealistic transfer pricing. http://europa.eu/rapid/press-release_IP-16-2923_en.htm http://europa.eu/rapid/press-release_IP-16-2923_en.htm The numbers are certainly not meaningless, but whether or not they are misleading is for a court to decide. It was certainly not my intention to mislead and I do not have all the information to come up with more reliable estimates of Apple's real profits in Europe. Also, as someone who is liable to pay personal taxes on top of profits already taxed through corporation tax I don't feel particularly biased or inclined to score political points in favor of higher taxes. It is simply my opinion that shifting government income from one tax to another isn't necessarily going to improve avoidance overall. It is also my opinion that taxes always have to be compared to what they buy us, in terms of actual services and also in terms of being humane.