am saying it's an open question now. so people can, and will, and should, ask this also calls into question the general practice of "forfeit right X to get be

am saying it's an open question now. so people can, and will, and should, ask this also calls into question the general practice of "forfeit right X to get benefit Y" that appears common In cases where "benefit Y" is actually "right Y", then it raises the question of whether these agreements are valid. I don't know if that's actually happening, but probabilistically would not be surprised if it were - just given the legal complexity involved in these documents.