If a law said they were only legally allowed to charge for the cost of supplying the paper/ink and labor involved yet they charged a flat fee that in the aggreg

If a law said they were only legally allowed to charge for the cost of supplying the paper/ink and labor involved yet they charged a flat fee that in the aggregate that was magnitudes larger than what it cost...yes. That's the analogous scenario here. edit: and now I'm confused b/c you're an appellate lawyer... edit2: btw, there's a reasonable scenario where free is the most they could legally charge, in case you were focusing on the fact that a fee is charged at all