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'childrens' is 'more correct' because it makes the most grammatical sense. Since it's genitiv, why would you apostrophe it, add another character for what reaso
by iammyIP 10y ago
'childrens' is 'more correct' because it makes the most grammatical sense.
Since it's genitiv, why would you apostrophe it, add another character for what reason? Whose ball is it? The dogs ball. Whose exhaust is it? It's the rockets exhaust. The apostrophe is used to mark silent letters inbetween the slew of two words. It is -> It's ~ It(i)s.
- asjo 10y agoObligatory Bob the Angry Flower educational cartoon link: http://www.angryflower.com/247.html http://www.angryflower.com/247.html See also: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Genitive_case https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Genitive_case
- iammyIP 10y agoThat flower's partially wrong. I disagree with the angry flowers possesive case. The apostrophe in possesive case is confusing and illogical.
- sixhobbits 10y agoThe apostrophe is used to indicate genitive in English. I think you're thinking of the more subtle double genitive case that you sometimes see in examples like "A brother of the man's" (double genitive) instead of "a brother of the man" (normal genitive). English is strange, but you can indicate the genitive with either the "of" construction, or the apostrophe.
- iammyIP 10y agoIt doesn't make any sense to put an apostrophe on a noun just because it's genitive, this is just a recent typographical fad.