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Note, you should look at the Dorian Invasion like the PIE invasion—metaphorical. So it's visible via the archaeological record, but it's not that there was conq
by duaneb 10y ago
Note, you should look at the Dorian Invasion like the PIE invasion—metaphorical. So it's visible via the archaeological record, but it's not that there was conquest so much as deep change where the Dorian culture clearly spreads over time.
Although conquest could be one such way of spreading culture, it's generally more by intermarriage than displacement (e.g. see the saxon and normandy invasions of britain or the romanization of gaul).
- Kinnard 10y agoI'm under the impression that there was widespread democide during and after the Norman Conquest, particularly with the goal of eliminating the anglo-saxon nobility and aristocracy.
- duaneb 10y agoThat is true, particularly in England. However the aristocracy mostly fled to other parts of Britain and Scandinavia; the Saxons certainly remained in force in the labor class and in the genetic pool. Of course, this is less true in England than Wales, Ireland, and Scotland, but saxony was not forgotten, English remained Germanic, and it would take many centuries until the Norman linguistic influence trickled down to the general populace. To this day you sound upper class if you stick to French (Latinate) derived vocabulary. My point being: the pre Dorian culture remained in Greece as well. The Mycenaeac influence was still visible in the literature of the day as a distinct culture; there was no clear attempt to impose a foreign culture by violence or other aggressive means. Or at least no evidence. Of course, we might know more if we ever get Linear B, but who knows if we ever will. This is all a very long winded way of saying "invasion" doesn't ever really capture the subtleties of cultural diffusion. Ghengis conquered much of the Middle East, but the resulting cultural change was both more visible in places Ghengis never saw such as Western Europe and it was driven more by trade than by direct imposition.
- acqq 10y ago> we might know more if we ever get Linear B, but who knows if we ever will. 1952, Ventris: http://www.cam.ac.uk/research/news/cracking-the-code-the-decipherment-of-linear-b-60-years-on http://www.cam.ac.uk/research/news/cracking-the-code-the-dec... "Ventris was able to show, ever more clearly over the months that ensued, that the language behind the script was Greek – in his own words “a difficult and archaic Greek, but Greek nevertheless”."
- laretluval 10y agoI think duaneb meant Linear A.
- duaneb 10y agoYup; I always get them flipped.
- duaneb 10y agoYep, you are correct. I was thinking of Linear A.
- CapitalistCartr 10y agoWhat is the PIE invasion?
- loudmax 10y agoProto Indo-Europeans. The language they're believed to have spoken is the common ancestor of most European languages (eg. Latin, German) and Hindi. This invasion may have been more of a linguistic and cultural spread by imitation than people of one ethnicity actually displacing another. Doubtless there's some of both.