4 ms·
That has never been the case. The Constitution only counts slaves as having 3/5 of the value as a non-slave for purposes of electoral representation. Not to men
by jdavis703 10y ago
That has never been the case. The Constitution only counts slaves as having 3/5 of the value as a non-slave for purposes of electoral representation. Not to mention the whole idea of slavery goes against the ideals of freedom. Even after slavery ended the right to vote was routinely denied to former slaves and their descendants, along with other rights such as due process.
- sathackr 10y agoYep...rights to women as well. So historically "all men" and the "rights endowed by their creator" has always been loosely interpreted to fit the ideals and requirements of the leaders at that time. Which is morally wrong.
- nsxwolf 10y ago3/5 compromise was intended to weaken the institution of slavery. The south would have been happy to count slaves as 2x human.
- didgeoridoo 10y agoThe motivation behind the "three-fifths" compromise is frequently misunderstood. Counting slaves as something "less than a full person" was actually a win for the abolitionists. Anti-slavery delegates were pushing for slaves to not be counted at all, while politicians from slaveholding states wanted them to count as a full citizen — thus amplifying the voting power of white southerners.