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No he isn't, the trade deals which allowed near slave labor in SE Asia and exploiting for natural resources in Africa (by foreign actors) is from the same econo
by adrenalinelol 10y ago
No he isn't, the trade deals which allowed near slave labor in SE Asia and exploiting for natural resources in Africa (by foreign actors) is from the same economic doctrine that allows sweatshops in Mexico (NAFTA) and will be the same ideology that passes TPP.
- Turing_Machine 10y agoYou haven't actually studied mercantilism much, have you? No, they were not the "same economic doctrine", or anything like it.
- twblalock 10y agoNear slave labor exists in SE Asia because the national governments in that part of the world are willing to tolerate it. There are plenty of countries with free trade agreements that don't have poor working conditions. Near slavery is not a necessary consequence of trade deals -- it is a consequence of bad government. It existed long before free trade agreements. Similarly, resource exploitation occurs in countries whose governments are willing to allow their resources to be exploited. It happened hundreds of years before any free trade agreements were signed, and it will continue to happen until those governments change their practices.
- aleh 10y agoWhat about Opium wars?
- twblalock 10y agoOne country using military force to coerce another country into trading with them does not constitute a free trade agreement. Free trade agreements are consensual.
- selimthegrim 10y agoAnd how any of those countries wanting to change their practices have the CIA distributed a few well-placed bullets or coups in? Ever heard of Jacobo Arbenz? Or watched Syriana?