> in the sense that she controls 50% + 1 of the votes Well there's the issue, a lot of these companies distort their ownership structures with multiple classe

> in the sense that she controls 50% + 1 of the votes Well there's the issue, a lot of these companies distort their ownership structures with multiple classes of shares in order to get around the usual 1 share, 1 vote scheme. So does the moral principle of ownership resulting in control still apply when they may technically "own" very little?