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Yes, you are correct on your definition. But arguing that the rich get taxed at a higher percentage by inflation than do the poor is silly. If the poor have no
by teilo 17y ago
Yes, you are correct on your definition. But arguing that the rich get taxed at a higher percentage by inflation than do the poor is silly. If the poor have no savings at all, then you are correct in they have nothing to lose but incorrect in that this equates to a progressive tax. That's like saying that a man with no money has a lower tax rate. He has no taxes at all. By your definition ALL taxes are progressive, but of course that's not true.
Many poor people do save, and inflation causes what they save to lose value at exactly the same rate as the money saved by the rich. If anything, by your definition, inflation is a regressive tax, meaning that the poor are taxed more than the rich. The rich tend to be good at profiting from inflation, as you noted.