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From the abstract: > There is no relationship between county-level racial bias in police shootings and crime rates (even race-specific crime rates), meaning th

• vessenes 10y ago
  I missed that sentence -- I'm not 100% sure, but I think that's not quite what I was talking about. That statement says that areas with higher-than-normal black or white crime rates vis-a-vis the other, that there is still anti-black racial bias in terms of shootings. I'm saying I'm wondering if people stopped during commission of a crime are 10x more likely to be white per capita, and 90% of police shootings are unarmed blacks and shootings happen in 10% of crime stops, and the population is 90/10 black and white (call it 10000 people, with 1% involved in crime stops and once per person), then we would have the following stats: 90 white people stopped, 10 black people, 10 shootings, 9 of them black. What is the 'race bias' here? Do we normalize to population, or criminal population, or stopped population? Those stats look like: no bias: (9 / 9000 blacks shot, 1 / 1000 whites shot), incredible bias( 9/10 black criminals vs 1 / 90 white criminals), and we don't know because we don't know if there's any stop bias. I'm not clear we get an answer out of the abstract or the study for this question. But, it's an important one to me for a variety of reasons, not least which is that I'd like to know if risky / criminal behavior statistically carries higher penalties for some race or socioeconomic groups in our country.
• moultano 10y ago
  Do they break that down by type of crime? "Crime rate" is a pretty broad term.