> Not in the legal sense of the word, so no. Since that hasn't been ruled on, we won't know that until it has. > It's "only a company dictates the rules/has n

> Not in the legal sense of the word, so no. Since that hasn't been ruled on, we won't know that until it has. > It's "only a company dictates the rules/has near total share/control of the general market". That's a strange definition, but even taking it, the market has yet to be defined by a court. As I've said elsewhere courts have already expanded competition law into securities, they literally declared it a market allowing them to use anti-monopoly controls.