3 ms·
Not necessarily. It could be that, say, poor people are more likely to get fined. If more black people are poor, then it could look like discrimination against
by Houshalter 10y ago
Not necessarily. It could be that, say, poor people are more likely to get fined. If more black people are poor, then it could look like discrimination against blacks, when it's just discrimination against the poor.
- tamana 10y agoA distinction without a difference. White people in USA spent 200 years intentonally creating a correlatio n between skin color and poverty, and then spent 50 years crying "correlarion is not causation"
- eevilspock 10y agofragile white down-votes.
- kelukelugames 10y agoLet's post some citations. 1) MLK jr. on turning working class whites against freed blacks. http://kingencyclopedia.stanford.edu/encyclopedia/documentsentry/doc_address_at_the_conclusion_of_selma_march/ http://kingencyclopedia.stanford.edu/encyclopedia/documentse... 2) Eleanor Rooselvet gets involved when Southern states give New Deal money disproportionally to whites. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eleanor_Roosevelt#Civil_rights_activism https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eleanor_Roosevelt#Civil_rights...
- LnxPrgr3 10y agoApologies if I'm missing your point (it's not clear who you meant to reply to), but the article went through that analysis and determined that there's no income correlation, but an obvious correlation by racial makeup. That actually surprised me: I expected racially biased policing to be confirmed, but I also expected evidence of bias against poor people. (Though targeting them seems like a terrible way to increase revenue.) Edit: since they're analyzing cities relying on revenue from fines, this makes sense. You can fine poor people all you want, but if you end up jailing them when they stop even showing up to court, they're now a cost and not a source of revenue. Though there are businesses that somehow make money through fees on payment plans that only exist because they're for fines people can't afford to pay.