Percentage of high school seniors who participated in various school-related extracurricular activities, by sex: 1990 and 2001 - https://nces.ed.gov/programs/y

Percentage of high school seniors who participated in various school-related extracurricular activities, by sex: 1990 and 2001 - https://nces.ed.gov/programs/youthindicators/Indicators.asp?PubPageNumber=34 https://nces.ed.gov/programs/youthindicators/Indicators.asp?... If artistic ability has a strong influence on intelligence compared to athleticism, then P(intelligent | artistic) >= P(intelligent | athletic). We know that P(athletic) > P(artistic) from the data. By Bayes' theorem: P(intelligent | artistic) = P(artistic | intelligent) * P(intelligent) / P(artistic). P(intelligent | athletic) = P(athletic | intelligent) * P(intelligent) / P(athletic). Ignoring P(intelligent) for a sec, we find P(intelligent | artistic) ~ P(artistic | intelligent) / P(artistic) P(intelligent | athletic) ~ P(athletic | intelligent) / P(athletic) If we accept the assumption that artistic ability is a bigger influence, then P(artistic | intelligent) / P(artistic) > P(athletic | intelligent) / P(athletic) Because P(athletic) > P(artistic), P(artistic | intelligent) > P(artistic) * P(athletic | intelligent) / P(athletic) P(artistic)/P(athletic) must be less than 1, so we get P(artistic | intelligent) > P(athletic | intelligent) I'm not really sure where I was headed with this, but it was neat to think about. If anyone spots an error please just correct me.