4 ms·
No - you have the following identity because 0 = -0 0^0 = 0^(-0) and by the definition of negative exponents, 0^(-0) = 1/(0^0) So whatever number 0^0 is
by qf303rjr3 10y ago
No - you have the following identity because 0 = -0
0^0 = 0^(-0)
and by the definition of negative exponents,
0^(-0) = 1/(0^0)
So whatever number 0^0 is, it is equal to its own reciprocal.
- fisherjeff 10y agoAh, ok. I didn't have an issue with the first half, I just misunderstood: I thought he was stating that 0^0 == 1/0^0, not deriving it.