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> And it equals its reciprocal, because 0^0 = 0^-0 = 1/0^0 Doesn't this already assume that 0^0 evaluates to 1 and not 0?
by fisherjeff 10y ago
> And it equals its reciprocal, because 0^0 = 0^-0 = 1/0^0
Doesn't this already assume that 0^0 evaluates to 1 and not 0?
- qf303rjr3 10y agoNo - you have the following identity because 0 = -0 0^0 = 0^(-0) and by the definition of negative exponents, 0^(-0) = 1/(0^0) So whatever number 0^0 is, it is equal to its own reciprocal.
- fisherjeff 10y agoAh, ok. I didn't have an issue with the first half, I just misunderstood: I thought he was stating that 0^0 == 1/0^0, not deriving it.