5 ms·
> How does one value a share that, if sold, would immediately diminish in value? v2 = a * v1 > How is a lender to grant credit based on such collateral? v2 =
by daveguy 10y ago
> How does one value a share that, if sold, would immediately diminish in value?
v2 = a * v1
> How is a lender to grant credit based on such collateral?
v2 = a^2 * v1
The first where a share is bought to be held for voting rights or long term investment and the second where a share is bought to be sold. Where "a" is the value retained.
It would be priced in like any other commission, fee or tax.
I don't think that it would sow chaos -- financial institutions and investors are pretty good at estimating value.
> Options would be massively difficult, leading to a secondary market for shell contracts in order that shares need not officially change hands.
Like derivatives? How about we just regulate those across the board.
- warfangle 10y ago> financial institutions and investors are pretty good at estimating value. Except when they're really, really not. See: mortgage tranches in 2006.
- daveguy 10y agoGood point. That really should be "financial institutions and investors are pretty good at calculating value". The value before and after purchase would not be obfuscated in any way. It is no more an estimate than the commission fee or tax is an estimate.
- sseveran 10y agoThe market corrected itself which is really what markets give you.