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That assumption is unnecessary. The only assumption needed is that taxes belong to the state. Property is defined by law.
by pekk 10y ago
That assumption is unnecessary. The only assumption needed is that taxes belong to the state. Property is defined by law.
- smsm42 10y agoI don't see what "taxes belong to the state" may mean. Taxes may mean a) some set of laws regulations that create legal framework for some money being paid to the government and b) money that has been paid to the government according to the framework above. The only way you can steal tax money is when you first pay the taxes and then get some of that money back illegally. I'm not sure there are a lot of corporations that do that. A lot of them do it legally, by means of corporate welfare, but while it can be despicable, it does not qualify as theft. Failure to pay taxes usually is illegal, but can not be sensibly defined as theft.
- murbard2 10y agoLaw used to define some people as property. It's extremely reductive to equate the concept of property with what the law happens to say.