4 ms·
If what you are saying is that a large part of happiness is related to your distance to the mean wealth, wouldn't you say a society with a 'normal' wealth distr
by acgourley 10y ago
If what you are saying is that a large part of happiness is related to your distance to the mean wealth, wouldn't you say a society with a 'normal' wealth distribution is going to be on average happier than a society with a 'bimodal' distribution? The technologist view is that automation is taking us in an increasingly bimodal direction, and that BI can "raise the floor" to pinch the two humps closer together. That doesn't seem zero sum to me - because the function relating happiness to distance-from-mean isn't a linear one.
Distribution types for reference: http://asq.org/learn-about-quality/data-collection-analysis-tools/overview/histogram2.html http://asq.org/learn-about-quality/data-collection-analysis-...
- kauffj 10y agoYes, generally speaking the flatter the income distribution the greater mean happiness. However, even setting aside moral concerns about methods (which are tremendous), it's not a given we even _want_ to optimize for mean happiness. E.g. A society that possesses greater mean happiness may also possess more starvation, more work, or less robustness against future threats.