4 ms·
That's not the question. Whether overtly stated or not, is it permissible for her to manage her risk in that way?
by fiatmoney 10y ago
That's not the question. Whether overtly stated or not, is it permissible for her to manage her risk in that way?
- raldi 10y agoNot in the United States: http://homeguides.sfgate.com/renting-shared-house-can-landlord-specify-gender-renter-want-93026.html http://homeguides.sfgate.com/renting-shared-house-can-landlo...
- deleted 10y ago[deleted]
- dragonwriter 10y ago> Whether overtly stated or not, is it permissible for her to manage her risk in that way? In California, if there is exactly one roomer in an owner-occupied, single-family home, its legal to discriminate on just about any basis -- but not to advertise a preference. Except if there are also shared living spaces that will be used, in which case it is also legal to advertise a gender preference. See, "Limited exceptions for single rooms and roommates", at http://www.dca.ca.gov/publications/landlordbook/discrimination.shtml http://www.dca.ca.gov/publications/landlordbook/discriminati...