3 ms·

Openly stated in the advertisement, or implemented through deception and outright lying?

• fiatmoney 10y ago
  That's not the question. Whether overtly stated or not, is it permissible for her to manage her risk in that way?
  • raldi 10y ago
    Not in the United States: http://homeguides.sfgate.com/renting-shared-house-can-landlord-specify-gender-renter-want-93026.html http://homeguides.sfgate.com/renting-shared-house-can-landlo...
    • deleted 10y ago
      [deleted]
  • dragonwriter 10y ago
    > Whether overtly stated or not, is it permissible for her to manage her risk in that way? In California, if there is exactly one roomer in an owner-occupied, single-family home, its legal to discriminate on just about any basis -- but not to advertise a preference. Except if there are also shared living spaces that will be used, in which case it is also legal to advertise a gender preference. See, "Limited exceptions for single rooms and roommates", at http://www.dca.ca.gov/publications/landlordbook/discrimination.shtml http://www.dca.ca.gov/publications/landlordbook/discriminati...