4 ms·

Should a woman living alone be free to refuse to rent her spare bedroom to men?

by fiatmoney 10y ago

raldi 10y ago
Openly stated in the advertisement, or implemented through deception and outright lying?
- fiatmoney 10y ago
  That's not the question. Whether overtly stated or not, is it permissible for her to manage her risk in that way?
  - raldi 10y ago
    Not in the United States: http://homeguides.sfgate.com/renting-shared-house-can-landlord-specify-gender-renter-want-93026.html http://homeguides.sfgate.com/renting-shared-house-can-landlo...
    - deleted 10y ago
      [deleted]
  - dragonwriter 10y ago
    > Whether overtly stated or not, is it permissible for her to manage her risk in that way? In California, if there is exactly one roomer in an owner-occupied, single-family home, its legal to discriminate on just about any basis -- but not to advertise a preference. Except if there are also shared living spaces that will be used, in which case it is also legal to advertise a gender preference. See, "Limited exceptions for single rooms and roommates", at http://www.dca.ca.gov/publications/landlordbook/discrimination.shtml http://www.dca.ca.gov/publications/landlordbook/discriminati...
dragonwriter 10y ago
Renting a spare room when the owner is present is a different thing that renting the entire unit when the owner is not present.
- fiatmoney 10y ago
  Yes, those are different words. Could you explain the legal principle, if there is one, that allows discrimination under one circumstance but not the other?
  - g8oz 10y ago
    Could you explain the meaning of the phrase "deliberately obtuse"?
    - fiatmoney 10y ago
      I mean, I can construct a hypothesis for the implicit decision rule (something like "rape is the only crime we care even minimally about trading off with our desire to End Discrimination") but I'm curious to see what a more generous person might conclude.
  - w4 10y ago
    > Could you explain the legal principle, if there is one, that allows discrimination under one circumstance but not the other? In case you're not being obtuse, the Fair Housing Act: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fair_Housing_Act https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fair_Housing_Act It applies to rentals of full properties, but not to roommates or (some) owner occupied properties.
    - fiatmoney 10y ago
      That's legislation, not a principle. If I ask "why is mortgage interest deductible", the principle is "because it encourages homeownership" - not the 1986 Tax Reform Act.
      - 10y ago

Should a woman living alone be free to refuse to rent her spare bedroom to men?

raldi 10y ago

Openly stated in the advertisement, or implemented through deception and outright lying?

fiatmoney 10y ago
That's not the question. Whether overtly stated or not, is it permissible for her to manage her risk in that way?
- raldi 10y ago
  Not in the United States: http://homeguides.sfgate.com/renting-shared-house-can-landlord-specify-gender-renter-want-93026.html http://homeguides.sfgate.com/renting-shared-house-can-landlo...
  - deleted 10y ago
    [deleted]
- dragonwriter 10y ago
  > Whether overtly stated or not, is it permissible for her to manage her risk in that way? In California, if there is exactly one roomer in an owner-occupied, single-family home, its legal to discriminate on just about any basis -- but not to advertise a preference. Except if there are also shared living spaces that will be used, in which case it is also legal to advertise a gender preference. See, "Limited exceptions for single rooms and roommates", at http://www.dca.ca.gov/publications/landlordbook/discrimination.shtml http://www.dca.ca.gov/publications/landlordbook/discriminati...

dragonwriter 10y ago

Renting a spare room when the owner is present is a different thing that renting the entire unit when the owner is not present.

fiatmoney 10y ago
Yes, those are different words. Could you explain the legal principle, if there is one, that allows discrimination under one circumstance but not the other?
- g8oz 10y ago
  Could you explain the meaning of the phrase "deliberately obtuse"?
  - fiatmoney 10y ago
    I mean, I can construct a hypothesis for the implicit decision rule (something like "rape is the only crime we care even minimally about trading off with our desire to End Discrimination") but I'm curious to see what a more generous person might conclude.
- w4 10y ago
  > Could you explain the legal principle, if there is one, that allows discrimination under one circumstance but not the other? In case you're not being obtuse, the Fair Housing Act: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fair_Housing_Act https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fair_Housing_Act It applies to rentals of full properties, but not to roommates or (some) owner occupied properties.
  - fiatmoney 10y ago
    That's legislation, not a principle. If I ask "why is mortgage interest deductible", the principle is "because it encourages homeownership" - not the 1986 Tax Reform Act.
    - 10y ago